In the WSJ today they had a quick article about porsche announcing that they are going to increase their stake in VW from 30% to over 50% by year end. Access to a larger base of technology and research from VW is the given reason. Porsche is extremely profitable because it does not offer discounts on it's vehicles. Simply doesn't have to react to the mass market such as VW or other main stream cars as the article states. To tie this all together and link it directly to our beloved 996's to remain on topic. I would like to know if you may agree with me that: Porsche manufacturing a large quantity of the 996 and not discounting them at the initial sale has created a larger depreciation of the 996 in later years vs. say the 993 which had manufacturing numbers at a fraction of the 996...What I'm getting at specifically is - was the 996 over priced a tad from the get-go? Was the 996 edging into the mass market category? Even with known issues, I think these cars are a screaming deal when you buy them used, but maybe not so when driven off the lot new. Let 'er rip....
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I saw this as an inevitable move on Porsche's part to survive in the upcoming mandated fleet average MPG rules starting in 2012. No other way for them. my 2cents.
I don't know if the 996 was overpriced much, since it was actually cheaper than the 993 when new. I think it's just that they made 9billion of them, and the market is saturated. This fact, plus the fact that they continue to be successful in all their subsequent cars makes the 996's even cheaper.
Porsche is hardly a mass market car. In a marketplace with appx. 16 million cars sold, US sales of 30,000 vehicles seem like a thimble-full compared to what the major car companies sell.
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Agreed. That, and the fact that they are going to terminate the Audi's little experiment with the RS8.
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